tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-7202150793869184289.post6801182975889388295..comments2023-09-24T05:45:23.811-05:00Comments on Paleoglot: The headache of the Indo-European subjunctiveGlen Gordonhttp://www.blogger.com/profile/02440249042894225949noreply@blogger.comBlogger4125tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-7202150793869184289.post-35714055692506556682009-01-08T17:15:00.000-06:002009-01-08T17:15:00.000-06:00Seadog Driftwood: "[...] the -i suffix marks tempo...<B>Seadog Driftwood: <I>"[...] the -i suffix marks temporal and spacial immediacy and certainty?"</I></B><BR/><BR/>If comparable to the Mandarin Chinese marker <I>zai</I>, as I added as a footnote in the UPDATES section of this article, then I'd suppose that the original, specific meaning of <B>*-i</B> would have been [+continuous][+affirmative][+declarative]. Without this marker, the verb must Glen Gordonhttps://www.blogger.com/profile/02440249042894225949noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-7202150793869184289.post-56822967965031641872009-01-05T15:28:00.000-06:002009-01-05T15:28:00.000-06:00Let me see if I understand you correctly: the -i s...Let me see if I understand you correctly: the -i suffix marks temporal and spacial immediacy <I>and</I> certainty? That sounds to me like a cross between "Old World" time-based organization of verbs and "New World" certainty-based organization.<BR/>Am I anywhere near the mark?Casey Goransonhttps://www.blogger.com/profile/15515485425230479050noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-7202150793869184289.post-51677353029413882472007-05-26T17:51:00.000-05:002007-05-26T17:51:00.000-05:00Thanks, I always ask myself "What would Tuvok conc...Thanks, I always ask myself "What would Tuvok conclude?" :)<BR/><BR/>Not all long vowels come from the same thing. It's very easy to confuse different layers of Indo-European because of such longstanding neglect by most IEists to produce a brave new theory that accounts for Anatolian as well as the rest of IE. So I appreciate individuals who stick their neck out in spite of the societal Glen Gordonhttps://www.blogger.com/profile/02440249042894225949noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-7202150793869184289.post-25380770618893332652007-05-26T05:46:00.000-05:002007-05-26T05:46:00.000-05:00This all seems quite logical to me. Thanks for the...This all seems quite logical to me. Thanks for the interesting read, and calling my response intelligent ;)<BR/><BR/>One more question though the form: *bhérēt. Why is the second e long? because it's in a light syllable. I know some Indo-Europeanists support long e to be a allophone of e (I'm one of them) but I never got a very clear explanation in what environment the long vowels show up.Anonymousnoreply@blogger.com